CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

  channel widths
  modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

  pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

  allocate an additional channel
  subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

  Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

  The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

  encryption
  encapsulation

7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
  AES
  DES
  RSA

8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
  AH
  ESP

9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

  DSL

10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

  authentication
  data confidentiality
  data integrity

11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?

  a WiMAX receiver

12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
  digital certificates
  smart cards

13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

  local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
  user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

  covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
  connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

  All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. Which statement describes cable?

  Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

  IPsec
  PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

  a remote-access VPN

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

  The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
  The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
  The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
  Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

  protocol suite
  source address
  destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

  It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

  Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
  Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

  close to the destination

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

  An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
  A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
  Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

  Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

  FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
  Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

  The last 3 bits will be ignored
  The first 29 bits will be checked

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

  R3 Fa0/0 inbound

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

  by source IP address

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

  extended ACL
  authentication
  Telnet connectivity

13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

  reflexive

14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

  They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

  In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

  Wildcard 0.0.0.0 is assumed

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

  The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

  the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

  permitted in and out of all interfaces

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

  The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

  The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

  172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

  It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
  Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

  Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
  Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

  Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

  It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
  It communicates consensus and defines roles.
  It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

  The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
  The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

  The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

  Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
  Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

  Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
  Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

  virus

8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

  DoS

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
  to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

  The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
  The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

  A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
  Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

  The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

  The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
  The TFTP server software has not been started.

14 
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

  Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
  Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

  ROM monitor
  direct connection through the console port

16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

  document the resources to be protected
  identify the security objectives of the organization

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

  SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

  Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

  The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

  monitoring

21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

  SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

22 
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

  It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
  It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) -> latest

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

209.165.20.25

3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

16

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com


6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101

8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding

9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.

10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

0

11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

access-list statement

12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

8

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated

14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

172.30.20.2

17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

static NAT

18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

64

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths
modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com



6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

encryption
encapsulation

7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA

8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP

9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

DSL

10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity

11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?

a WiMAX receiver

12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards

13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. Which statement describes cable?

Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

IPsec
PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

a remote-access VPN

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com

http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
  Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

  protocol suite
  source address
  destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

  It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

  Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
  Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com

http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

  close to the destination

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

  An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
  A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
  Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

  Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

  FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
  Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

  The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
  The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

  R3 Fa0/0 inbound

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

  by source IP address

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

  extended ACL
  authentication
  Telnet connectivity

13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

  reflexive

14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

  They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

  In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

  All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

  The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

  the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

  permitted in and out of all interfaces

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

  The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

  The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

  172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

  It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
  Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

  Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
  Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com

http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

  Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

  It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
  It communicates consensus and defines roles.
  It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

  The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
  The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

  The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

  Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
  Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

  Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
  Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

  virus

8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

  DoS

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
  to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

  The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
  The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

  A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
  Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

  The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

  The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
  The TFTP server software has not been started.

14 
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

  Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
  Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

  ROM monitor
  Direct connection through the console port

16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

  Document the resources to be protected
  Identify the security objectives of the organization

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

  SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

  Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

  The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

  Monitoring

21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

  SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

22 
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

  It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
  It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.
more.

CCNA4 Chapter 7 100%

CCNA4 Chapter 7 100%.rar

Download here!

more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1 (100%)

 http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com    
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

  Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

  The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

  ATM

4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

  analog dialup

5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

  Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

  The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

  low cost
  availability

8. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

  number of subscribers

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

  CSU/DSU

10. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

  Physical Layer
  Data Link Layer

11. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

  ATM

12. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

  A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

13. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

  access server

14. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

  Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

  circuit switching
  data bearer channels
  time-division multiplexing

16. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
  CIR
  DLCI
  PVC

17. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

  modem
  CSU/DSU

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

  metro Ethernet

19. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

  ATM switches
  core routers
  Frame Relay switches

20. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

  dedicated switched lines

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

  tunnels

22. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

  DCE
more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 3 (100%)

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

  Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

  Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

  locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

  virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

  Inverse ARP
  LMI status messages

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

  The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

  The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
  Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

  It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

9. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

  two point-to-point subinterfaces

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

  The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

  It is experiencing congestion.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

  The local DLCI number is 401.
  Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

  110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

  R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
  R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
  R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
  R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

  The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

  The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.

17. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

  The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
  The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

  Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

19. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

  To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.

20. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

  drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
  sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
  sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

21. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

  Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
  The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

  R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast  R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast  R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast  R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
more.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 2 (100%)

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?

  The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command  show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)

  The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
  A timing problem has occurred on the cable.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

  The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.

4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?

  Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.

5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)

  Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
  Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.

6. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

  PAP

7. What function do Network Control Protocols provide for a PPP connection?

  to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?

  Router(config)# hostname R3
  R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco
  R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
  R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0
  R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

9. What advantage does PPP have over HDLC for serial communications?

  It supports authentication

10. Which PPP configuration option can be used to establish load balancing over the interfaces of a router?

  multilink

11. Which three statements are correct about HDLC encapsulation? (Choose three.)

  HDLC implementation in Cisco routers is proprietary.
  HDLC is the default serial interface encapsulation on Cisco routers.
  HDLC uses frame delimiters to mark the beginnings and ends of frames.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is not able to communicate with a neighbor router that is directly connected to serial 0/0/0. What is the reason for this?

  The interface has been administratively shutdown with the shutdown command.

13. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

  Data is able to flow across this link.

14.  
Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?

  EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI)

15. What does the demarcation point represent in data communication physical circuits?

  physical point at which the public network ends and the private customer network begins

16. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)

  It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
  It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
  It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)

  The router has agreed on IP parameters.
  The router has negotiated LCP successfully.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about PPP operation?

  Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

19. Which three statements correctly describe PPP authentication? (Choose three.)

  PAP sends passwords in clear text.
  CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm.
  CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

20. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

  link quality
  authentication

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?

  two
more.

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0 100%

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch

5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
• the destination device on the local media
• the path to use to reach the destination host
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Network A -- WAN
• Network B -- WAN
• Network C -- LAN
• Network B -- MAN
• Network C -- WAN
• Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
• define the structure of layer specific PDU's
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors
more.

CCNA4 FINAL 100/100

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?

*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound

10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.

11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing

12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.

14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets

15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?

all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded

18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits

27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.

29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone



30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker

31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a "1" in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a "0" in the wildcard mask.

34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.

37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication

39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
**network
data link
physical

45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer

46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.

48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure

50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay
more.